How To Pass Salesforce DEV-401 Dumps Study Guide

The best Salesforce DEV-401 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the Salesforce DEV-401 exam dumps practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass Salesforce DEV-401 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

Vendor: Salesforce
Exam Code: DEV-401 dumps exam
Exam Name: Building Applications with Force.com and Visualforce
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
With Metadata API you can move configuration changes between sandbox and production environments:
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

DEV-401

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are the 3 layers of DEV-401 an application? (Select all that apply)
A. User Interface
B. Business Logic
C. Business Data
D. Data Model E. Objects
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Data and process-centric applications are best suited for Force.com.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are the 4 Declarative Application building blocks of the DEV-401 User Interface? (Select all that apply)
A. Visualforce Pages
B. Applications
C. Tabs
D. Workflow
E. Page Layouts
F. Record Types
Correct Answer: BCEF

QUESTION 5
Building your Data Model True or False The DEV-401 limit on the number of custom fields per object depends on the Salesforce edition.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Encrypted fields can be edited regardless of whether you have the “View Encrypted Data” permission.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are true about custom DEV-401 objects? (Select all that apply):
A. Salesforce provides a set of custom objects that you can use to store data.
B. After you create a custom object, you need to add the user interface.
C. Custom objects come with an infrastructure including reporting, auditing and access control.
D. When you create a custom object, you get a direct access to the database.
E. Custom objects are reportable and search
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Identify the DEV-401 correct statements about dependent picklists (Select all that apply):
A. Standard picklists can be controlling fields but not dependent fields
B. The maximum number of values allowed in a controlling field is 400
C. Before defining a dependency, you should ensure that your picklist has at least 1 value
D. A custom multi-select picklist can be set at the controlling field for a dependent field
E. If a field represents both a controlling field
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
If a lookup field is optional, what actions can you define for the field if someone deletes a DEV-401 referenced lookup record? (Select all that apply)
A. Clear the value of this field
B. Delete all records which contain this reference
C. Don’t allow deletion of the lookup record that’s part of a lookup relationship
D. Delete this record also
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 10
Which of the DEV-401 following statements are true about a lookup relationship? (Select all that apply):
A. A maximum of 2 relationships are allowed per object
B. A lookup relationship can span to multiple layers
C. A parent record is required for each child
D. A lookup field is not a required field
E. Access to parent determines access to children
Correct Answer: BD

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EMC E20-690 Dump Questions 2017 Latest – 100% Pass Guarantee

The EMC E20-690 exam dumps practice questions and answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. Update the best product frequently have the latest version of the brain dumps. The most professional expert team to E20-690 dump back up grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try the free demo.

QUESTION 1
A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5″ SAS or twenty-five 3.5″ EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5″ EFD, SAS or twenty-five 2.5″ SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5″ FC, EFD or twenty-five .2.5″ SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5″ EFD, FC or twenty-five 2.5″ EFD disk drives
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
E20-690
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?           E20-690 dump
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An EMC service engineer is tasked with installing a VNX Block storage system with an SPE. After a period of 10 minutes, SP A has booted successfully and SP B’s status LED is still flashing amber. E20-690 dump The service engineer verifies that the cabling is correct. What is one explanation for why SP B will not boot?
A. The top LCC in DAE 0 is faulted
B. I/O module 1 in the right SP is faulted
C. The bottom LCC in DAE 0 is faulted
D. I/O module 1 in the left SP is faulted
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have installed a new VNX File system. Data Mover 3 is taking longer to boot than Data Mover 2. What can support personnel review to troubleshoot the cause of this?
A. SP Collects
B. NAR files
C. Reason codes
D. Dumps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are tasked to investigate an issue where a Data Mover has a boot error code of 4. You used the collect_support_materials tool to gather data.
Where does the resulting diagnostic file reside?
A. /nas/var/emcsupport
B. C:\EMC\dumps
C. C:\dumps
D. /nas/log/emcsupport
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
From which resource would you obtain the VNX Block recovery document?
A. VNX Procedure Generator
B. VNX Installation Toolkit
C. VNX Installation Assistant
D. VNX Series Product Page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
When performing an installation recovery of VNX OE File to pre-VIA initialization state what impact should be considered?
A. Reboot the primary DM to force a configuration backup to the standby DM prior to the cleanup.
B. The back-end cleanup process destroys all file systems and back-end storage.
C. File systems are preserved but the Control Station and Data Movers must be reconfigured.
D. File systems are preserved but exports and share configuration must be restored.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In a VNX File procedure, which component is imaged back to a state where the VNX Installation Assistant can be rerun?
A. Control Station
B. Control LUNs
C. NAS partitions
D. Data Movers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are tasked to perform a VNX Block recovery procedure. You have the required procedure, CDs or DVDs, and recovery image file.
Which file extension does the recovery image file have?
A. .mif
B. .ena
C. .zip
D. .tar
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What enablers are included in the Advanced FAST Suite?          E20-690 dump
A. FAST, FAST Cache, Thin Provisioning, Compression
B. FAST, FAST Cache, QoS Manager, Analyzer
C. FAST, FAST Cache, Navisphere FAST LUN Migrator, QoS Manager
D. FAST, FAST Cache, Navisphere FAST LUN Migrator, Compression, Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
When using USM to download software updates, what is the default location where the software is stored?
A. C:\EMC\repository\Downloads\VNX
B. C:\EMC\Downloads\VNX
C. C:\Program Files\EMC\repository\Downloads
D. C:\EMC\repository\VNX\Downloads
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Microsoft 74-343 Exam Practice Materials Online Free Update

QUESTION: 1
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. Your manager wants you to plan an office move. You have a project schedule from a prior office move named “OfficeMove.mpp” and you want to Microsoft 74-343 exam use this project to assist in planning the current office move. In the fewest steps possible, you need to create your new project schedule based on the old project schedule. What should you do?
A. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, change the project start date and project title, and clear the baseline. Save the file using the current project name.
B. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, click on Save As, save the file using a new file name, clear the baseline, and set all tasks to zero percent complete.
C. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, save the file as an .mpt file type, removing the baseline and actual values. Save the .mpt file as an .mpp file type, assigning the current project name.
D. Open the old OfficeMove.mpp file, click on Save As, and save the file using a new file name. Then enter the project name in the Project Summary Task. Set all tasks to zero percent complete.
Answer: C
74-343
QUESTION: 2
You are a project manager for an organization that 74-343 vce uses Project Standard 2013. You add shortcuts on the Quick Access Toolbar to your most frequently used commands.
Your manager is impressed with the ease of use this customization provides and would like other project managers in the group to use it. You need to deploy the customization to these project managers. What should you do?
A. Save a Project File with the customizations to the ribbon in the file. Ask the other project managers to open the file.
B. Email your global.mpt file to each project manager. Ask them to place the template in the %appdata%\Microsoft\MS Project\15 \1033 folder.
C. Click on the Import/Export button to export the customizations to a file. Ask the other project managers to import the file.
D. Use regedit to export the following key: HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Office\15.0\User Settings\ProjectRibbon. Ask the other project managers to import the key.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 3
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Standard 2013. You have created a non-working day in a resource’s calendar; however, the HR department notifies you that the resource will work that day after all. You need to reflect this change in the project in the most efficient manner. What should you do?
A. Open the Project calendar and mark the work day as working.
B. Open the resource’s working calendar and edit the Work Week details to set the day as working.
C. Open the resource’s working calendar and delete the exception.
D. Open the resource’s working calendar and mark the day as working.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. All resources in your project schedule have availability of 8 hours per day. You notice that several of the resources on the project are over allocated. You decide to level the project to 74-343 pdf help resolve the overallocations for the resources. Team members often do not work at the same time when completing their work on the tasks. You need to resolve the overallocations by using the Resource Leveling function. What should you do?
A. Click the Level only within available slack option.
B. Click Clear Leveling.
C. Click the Leveling can adjust individual assignments on a task option.
D. Click the Level resources with a proposed booking type option.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder asks you to update your project to reflect your organization’s scheduled two-week closure. You need to 74-343 dumps reflect the closure within your schedule. What should you do?
A. Create a resource and specify non-working days for the resource which reflect the closure. Assign this resource to each task.
B. Open the Project Calendar and modify the default work week by setting the dates as non-working time.
C. Create a new calendar and assign this to the tasks that are scheduled over the period of closure.
D. Open the Project Calendar and enter the planned closure in the Exceptions tab.
Answer: D

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2017 Latest Cisco 350-018 Dumps Exam Prasctice Questions And Answers

The best and most updated CCIE 350-018 training materials,  it related to 350-018 dumps exam or other Cisco CCIE certifications, especially the ones who are looking to climb up the hierarchy levels faster in their respective organizations. Cisco CCIE is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCIE 350-018 training materials.

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the 350-018 IPv6 OSPFv3 authentication Trailer are true (choose two)
A. The AT-bit resides in the OSPFv3 Header field
B. The IPv6 Payload length includes the length of the authentication Trailer
C. It Provide an alternative option to OSPFv3 IPsec authentication
D. The AT-bit must be set only in OSPFv3 Hello packets that include an Authentication Trailer
E. The AT-bit must be set only in OSPFv3 Database Description packets that include an Authentication Trailer
F. The OSPFv3 packet length includes the length of the Authentication Trailer
Answer: D,E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
350-018
Identify the behavior of the 350-018 pdf ACL if it is applied inbound on E0/0.
A. The ACL will drop both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
B. The ACL will pass both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
C. The ACL will pass the initial fragment for port 80 but drop the noninitial fragment for any port.
D. The ACL will drop the initial fragment for port 80 but pass the noninitial fragment for any port.
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which three statements about NetFlow version 9 are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It is backward-compatible with versions 8 and 5.
B. Version 9 is dependent on the underlying transport; only UDP is supported.
C. A version 9 export packet consists of a packet header and flow sets.
D. Generating and maintaining valid template flow sets requires additional processing.
E. NetFlow version 9 does not access the NetFlow cache entry directly.
Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 4
Which signature engine is used to create a custom IPS signature on a Cisco 350-018 vce IPS appliance that triggers when a vulnerable web application identified by the “/runscript.php” URI is run?
A. AIC HTTP
B. Service HTTP
C. String TCP
D. Atomic IP
E. META
F. Multi-String
Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about an SNMPv2 communication?
A. The whole communication is not encrypted.
B. Only the community field is encrypted.
C. Only the query packets are encrypted.
D. The whole communication is encrypted.
Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which port or ports are used for the 350-018 exam FTP data channel in passive mode?
A. random TCP ports
B. TCP port 21 on the server side
C. TCP port 21 on the client side
D. TCP port 20 on the server side
E. TCP port 20 on the client side
Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the purpose of the BGP TTL security check?
A. The BGP TTL security check is used for iBGP session.
B. The BGP TTL security check protects against CPU utilization-based attacks.
C. The BGP TTL security check checks for a TTL value in packet header of less than or equal to for successful peering.
D. The BGP TTL security check authenticates a peer.
E. The BGP TTL security check protects against routing table corruption.
Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two statements 350-018 about Network Edge Authentication Technology (NEAT) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can be configured on both access ports and trunk ports.
B. It allows you to configure redundant links between authenticator and supplicant switches
C. It can be configured on both access ports and EtherChannel ports.
D. It supports port-based authentication on the authenticator switch.
E. It conflicts with auto-configuration
F. It requires a standard ACL on the switch port.
Answer: A,D

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How To Pass Juniper JN0-643 Exam With Latest JN0-643 Dumps Practice And Youtube

This dump is more than enough to pass the Juniper JN0-643 dumps exam but there are five new hot spot questions in the exam, i advice be perfect in hot spots with real knowledge got 958. Best of luck guys. All the questions I had on exam were in this dump. I just passed my exam yesterday. Full scored. Thanks very much for your help.

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about L2PT? (Choose two.)
A. L2PT requires 802.1Q tunneling enablement to effectively tunnel L2 protocols.
B. 802.1Q tunnels all L2 protocols by default.
C. L2PT encapsulates L2 PDUs by enabling the ingress switch to rewrite the PDUs’ source MAC addresses before forwarding them onto the service provider network.
D. You cannot enable L2PT and VLAN translation on the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
JN0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, a customer noticed that the JN0-643 802.1Q-tunneled packets received on SwitchB are being dropped.
What is causing this problem?
A. There is an ether-type mismatch on SwitchA and SwitchB.
B. Customer VLANs are not configured on SwitchB.
C. The SwitchB interface connecting to SwitchA is not a trunk port.
D. Customer VLANs are mismatched on both switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a service provider and have multiple customers in a building. You are installing a new switch that can host all of your customers. However, you would like to ensure that one customer cannot see or broadcast to another customer. You would also like to have them use a common gateway IP address from the building.
What should be used to provide this access?
A. VLAN
B. private VLAN
C. filter-based VLAN
D. Layer 2 tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What are three types of JN0-643 pdf PVLAN broadcast domains? (Choose three.)
A. primary VLAN
B. dynamic VLAN
C. isolated VLAN
D. community VLAN
E. S-VLAN
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Two PCs are attached to a hub, which is attached to port ge-0/0/0 on your EX Series switch. You must separate the incoming traffic from the PCs into two VLANs.
What should you use to accomplish this task?
A. dynamic VLAN registration with MVRP
B. private VLAN
C. filter-based VLAN
D. guest VLAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are asked to implement a filter-based VLAN assignment. You have created the JN0-643 vce firewall filter and must apply this filter to the incoming interface.
Where must this filter be applied?
A. to the access interface configuration
B. to the interface under the primary VLAN assignment
C. to the interface under the secondary VLAN assignment
D. to the trunk interface configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
JN0-643
Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to separate the human resources group from the finance group on the company network even though they share the same VLAN. You consider using PVLANs, and you delegate the task to a junior engineer who submits the configuration shown in the exhibit to accomplish this task. After review, you realize that the JN0-643 dumps PVLAN implementation will not work correctly.
Referring to the exhibit, which three commands must be included to resolve the problem? (Choose three.)
A. set vlans pvlan no-local-switching
B. set vlans hr-group no-local-switching
C. set vlans finance-group no-local-switching
D. set vlans hr-group primary-vlan pvlan
E. set vlans finance-group primary-vlan pvlan
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are correct about MSTP? (Choose two.)
A. It allows you to preprovision VLAN IDs to spanning tree instances.
B. It provides a more scalable solution than VSTP.
C. It is not supported when using MVRP.
D. It allows you to use VLAN groups to simplify configuration tasks when groups of VLANs use the same parameters.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
You are asked to implement MSTP on all devices in your Layer 2 network.
Which three parameters must match on all devices within the same region? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. hello timer
C. maximum age
D. revision level
E. VLAN mapping table
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
You are asked to JN0-643 implement VSTP on all devices in your Layer 2 network.
Which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. VSTP supports up to 256 different spanning-tree topologies.
B. A BPDU is sent for each spanning-tree instance.
C. Each VLAN will be assigned to a unique spanning-tree instance.
D. MSTP can be used in addition to VSTP to account for VLANs outside of the supported range.
E. VSTP can be used to load-balance Layer 2 traffic using VLANs.
Correct Answer: BCE

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Download Free Microsoft 070-488 Dumps Exam Study Materials And Youtube

Each department must have its own site. Each department home page must display relevant information about the department and contact information for employees. Each user is encouraged to Microsoft 070-488 dumps create their own blog, on which they will publish information about current projects and get feedback from other users in the company. Personalized content must be displayed for an employee when an employee accesses the intranet. The page must include a feed that displays updates from other users’ blog posts.

You publish the Internet site for multiple device types, such as mobile phones and tablet devices.The solution uses multiple master pages. Device channels select the master page to display based upon the capabilities of the device that connects to 070-488 the site. The following table lists the device channels and master pages that the site uses.

070-488

QUESTION 1
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers.
Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to generate document identifiers for 070-488 exam each new document that is uploaded to the site.
What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to configure authentication to 070-488 access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures.
Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-488
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that 070-488 vce employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
You need to configure the 070-488 Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to configure filtering for the Product page.
Which filtering option should you use?
A. products/pages/products.aspx?productID=*&.productCategory=*
B. products.aspx;productID;productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
C. products; productID; productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
D. products/pages/products.aspx?*
E. productID;productCategory
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to 070-488 pdf the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
You need to implement 070-488 caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Correct Answer: C

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Latest IBM C2010-595 Exam Test Practice Questions And Answers – Youtube

Vendor: IBM
Exam Code: C2010-597
Exam Name: IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development
Version: Demo

Sat and passed the exam after months of study and C2010-597 several ‘lab installs’ I did find it strange the whole test is pretty much based off of maintaining voice networks rather than installing them. Now when I can be assed to finish my CCNP Route is a different story. But quickly flicking through this dump you could pass the exam with it but there are some new ones in there as well but if you’ve read the material and practiced enough it should be a walk in the park.

C2010-597

QUESTION NO: 1
A. In the Form Builder
B. In the Data Modeler
C. In the Association Manager
D. In the State Family Manager
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
An existing portal must be modified so that a new navigation collection will display in the portal. Assuming that a navigation collection of type Quick Links exists and is populated with navigation items, what additional new C2010-597 exam element must be created to display this collection in the existing portal?
A. Portal
B. Portal Section
C. Navigation Item
D. Navigation Collection
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which workflow type gets executed by an association of two objects?
A. synchronous workflow using temporary data
B. synchronous workflow using permanent data
C. asynchronous workflow using temporary data
D. asynchronous workflow using permanent data
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A. It is not configured in the Sub Action properties.
B. It is not configured in the Form Section properties.
C. It is not configured in the Business Object properties.
D. It is not configured in the State Transition properties for at least one transition.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
Several organization records appear in reports but do not appear in the C2010-597 Organization hierarchy. What should be the first item to validate during the troubleshooting process for the records in question?
A. verify that the records have the required Primary Organization association to the organization’s root node in the hierarchy
B. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Included In and Includes to other records in the hierarchy
C. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Is Parent Of and Is Child Of to other records in the hierarchy
D. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Primary Location and Primary Location Of to other records in the hierarchy
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
How can a list be sorted to display more frequent values first?
A. In the Data Modeler, set the sequence order in the properties of the List field.
B. Values can only be sorted in ascending and descending order and cannot be ordered individually.
C. In the Form layout, use the Manual Sort option to arrange the entries in the desired order sequence.
D. In the List Manager, use arrows from the Order column to move entries to the desired order
sequence.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
What is the process to hide a C2010-597 vce state transition action from view in a form?
A. Select Secondary Action in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
B. Deselect Default Display in the state transition properties in Form Builder
C. Select Secondary Action in the state transition properties in Form Builder.
D. Configure Includes/Excludes in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
Which statement is true when defining an Include association?
A. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with the child in an editable state.
B. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with the parent in an editable state.
C. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with both the parent and the child in an editable state.
D. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with both the parent and the child in an editable state.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
In the Data Modeler’s Association List what does a C2010-597 red star next to the association indicate?
A. The association is used in a smart section.
B. The association is a dependent association.
C. The association is referenced by a locator field.
D. The association is referenced by a required field. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
A navigation collection is a hierarchical structure that contains what?
A. portal sections
B. navigation items
C. only menu items
D. only related navigation items
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11
An extended formula can be C2010-597 dumps created for which two data types? (Choose two.)
A. Text
B. Date
C. Number
D. Boolean
E. Classification
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 12
The designer is creating a query that will return several thousand records, so he is using the option Prompt Before Query to give the user a chance to reduce the number of records to be returned by the query. When the C2010-597 report is run it does not stop and returns all the records immediately. What is wrong with this query?
A. There are no runtime filters.
B. There are no system filters.
C. The record’s flag Enable Prompt Before Query has not been set in the business objects.
D. The records returned are below a preset threshold used by the platform to enable this function
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 13
Click the Exhibit button.
While troubleshooting associations on a World Region record of Europe, the Associations tab shows these conditions while exploring the triCountry associations. What do the C2010-597 pdf results indicate?
A. Europe has duplicate associations to France, Germany, Ireland, and Italy.
B. France, Germany, Ireland, and Italy will not show up properly in the Geography hierarchy.
C. Europe has the association Is Parent Of and the association Is Parent World Region to several countries.
D. Europe has the association Is Parent Of and the reverse association Is Parent World Region to several countries.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
The IF/THEN logic of the workflow is failing. Which task should be checked?
A. Iter Task
B. Fork Task
C. Switch Task
D. Create Record Task
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15
Business objects are created using C2010-597 which tool?
A. Form Builder
B. Data Modeler
C. Data Integrator
D. Association Manager
Answer: B

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Pass Cisco 300-101 Test Easily With Best Cisco 300-101 Exam Study Guide

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-101 exam
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Version: Demo

300-101

QUESTION 1
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address. Based on 300-101 this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the 300-101 dumps need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the an EUI-48 MAC address.
Here is an example showing how a the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.

QUESTION 2
A packet capture log indicates that 300-101 vce several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A. Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B. Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C. Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D. All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent 300-101 by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified IPv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message.

QUESTION 3
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
Traffic from R1 to R61 s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3- R5-R6 paths. What is the 300-101 pdf ratio of traffic over each path?
A. 1:1
B. 1:5
C. 6:8
D. 19:80
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
First, find the IP address of the loopback0 interface on R6:
We see that it is 150.1.6.6, so we issue the 300-101 “show ip route 150.1.6.6” command from R1 and see this:
Notice the “traffic share count” shows 19 for the first path, and 80 for the second path.

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Download Free Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam With High Pass Rate

QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic.
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the 200-125 dumps source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Correct Answer: A Explanation

200-125

Explanation:
Whereas switches can only examine and forward packets based on the contents of the MAC header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a packet is destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the 200-125 packet’s network-layer header (such as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain source and destination network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router’s MAC address in the MAC header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the following steps:

1.Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header . The router checks the packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and examines the network-layer header to determine what to do with the packet.
2.Examine the age of the 200-125 vce packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too far to be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is the maximum number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop count of 15, the router discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value. Unlike the IPX hop count, which increments as the packet is forwarded through each router, the IP TTL value decrements as the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router discards the packet. A router cannot decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.
3.Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists available networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number), and the distance to those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet, the router must build a new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows 95/98 workstation, type ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)
4.Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC header for the packet. The MAC header includes the router’s MAC address and the final destination’s MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with 200-125 a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.
Correct Answer: CD Explanation

Explanation:
Basically, a collision domain is 200-125 exam a network segment that allows normal network traffic to flow back and forth. In the old days of hubs, this meant you had a lot of collisions, and the old CSMA/CD would be working overtime to try to get those packets re-sent every time there was a collision on the wire (since ethernet allows only one host to be transmitting at once without there being a traffic jam). With switches, you break up collision domains by switching packets bound for other collision domains. These days, since we mostly use switches to connect computers to the network, you generally have one collision domain to a PC.
Broadcast domains are exactly what they imply: they are network segments that allow broadcasts to be sent across them.

Since switches and bridges allow for broadcast traffic to go unswitched, broadcasts can traverse 200-125 collision domains freely. Routers, however, don’t allow broadcasts through by default, so when a broadcast hits a router (or the perimeter of a VLAN), it doesn’t get forwarded. The simple way to look at it is this way: switches break up collision domains, while routers (and VLANs) break up collision domains and broadcast domains. Also, a broadcast domain can contain multiple collision domains, but a collision domain can never have more than one broadcast domain associated with it. Collision Domain: A group of Ethernet or Fast Ethernet devices in a CSMA/CD LAN that are connected by repeaters and compete for access on the network. Only 200-125 one device in the collision domain may transmit at any one time, and the other devices in the domain listen to the network in order to avoid data collisions. A collision domain is sometimes referred to as an Ethernet segment.

Broadcast Domain: Broadcasting sends a message to everyone on the local network (subnet). An example for Broadcasting would be DHCP Request from a Client PC. The Client is asking for a IP Address, but the client does not know how to reach the DHCP Server. So the client sends a DHCP Discover packet to EVERY PC in the local subnet (Broadcast). But only the DHCP Server will answer to the Request.
How to count them?
Broadcast Domain: No matter how many hosts or devices are connected together, if they 200-125 pdf are connected with a repeater, hub, switch or bridge, all these devices are in ONE Broadcast domain (assuming a single VLAN). A Router is used to separate Broadcast-Domains (we could also call them Subnets – or call them VLANs). So, if a router stands between all these devices, we have TWO broadcast domains.

Collision Domain:
Each connection from a single PC to a Layer 2 switch is ONE Collision domain. For example, if 5 PCs are connected with separate cables to a switch, we have 5 Collision domains. If this switch is connected to another switch or a router, we have one collision domain more. If 5 Devices are connected to a Hub, this is ONE Collision Domain. Each device that is connected to a Layer 1 device (repeater, hub) will reside in ONE single collision domain.

QUESTION 3
Which three statements accurately describe 200-125 Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation

Explanation:
Cisco 200-125 is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Cisco 200-125 reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain -> . Note: Cisco 200-125 decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-125-ccna.html

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642-996

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
Version: Demo

QUESTION: 1
What is one example of typical business requirements 642-996 vce that are driving the design of installed base data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. virtualization
C. greater collaboration
D. physical space
Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
What documents are not typically an output that is deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. troubleshooting procedures
D. migration plan
Answer: C

QUESTION: 3
What is the most 642-996 common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Answer: A

QUESTION: 4
What is a typical output of the design planning 642-996 pdf phase that characterizes an existing data center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction
Answer: B

QUESTION: 5
Which two characteristics 642-996 are associated with the core layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. Layer 2 default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 6
Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of 642-996 dumps a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B, E, G

QUESTION: 7
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: C, F, H

QUESTION: 8
Which protocols are Cisco 642-996 recommended for connecting the main data center to a remote data center?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Answer: B

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